(See Part 1, Part 2, Part 3, Part 4, and Part 5. Also I am going to suspend the limit of three comments per post for this series of posts because it is a topic that benefits from back and forth discussions.)
As promised, here is a follow-up post to discuss how we know whether an ‘objective reality’ exists in the quantum world or not. It took me longer to write than I anticipated because the issues are subtle and I had to be careful in how I try to explain them. It is also a little long.
To refresh some ideas, ‘objective reality’ means that a measured quantity exists before we measure it. i.e., the measurement merely tells us what already existed. By contrast, the standard interpretation of quantum theory says that for certain properties of a particle, the measured value only comes into existence upon measurement and does not exist before. Hence the quantum world does not demonstrate objective reality. The problem is that since we seem to need the measurement in order to know what the value of the quantity is, it looks like we cannot say whether it existed before the measurement or not.
So how can we know something without in fact measuring it? Einstein suggested that if we can predict the outcome of a measurement with 100% accuracy, then that property has an objective reality, in that it exists before the measurement. i.e., it is as good as having been measured even though it has not been directly measured.
Let us now look at the scenario described by bluerizlagirl in a comment to Part 4 in this series.
How is this different from taking a red card and a black card from a deck; having someone select one at random, climb in a spaceship and travel halfway across the universe; and as soon as I look at my card, say it happens to be red, I know at once that their card is black? They have always been opposites from the outset, so as soon as you know the state of either one, then you automatically know the state of the other one, by the property of oppositeness.
